This Muslim Sister, posed one more question using a video of Sheik Ahemad Deedat. And I am so very confused with different translations and don’t understand how to approach an answer to the question. Because I feel the next question would be “Why so many translations?”
The text in question is Matthew 9:9
Why would Matthew use his name or use the the third pronoun he instead of ** I**, if he was the author himself.
Similar kind of question had come to my mind several years ago when I had come to the Lord and started to read the bible. The text in question was Numbers 12: 1-4
If Moses was the author why would he write, “Now Moses was the most humble” contradicting his authorship and humility?
Friends please suggest!