I just went through this post and I’m kind of confused over @Sam_Allberry’s answer. Does it mean that If I am married to an opposite sex and still have sexual attractions for same sex partners it would be right?
Or does it mean that I can still partake in same sex indulgences even though I’m married to the opposite sex, and won’t this be sin in itself?
Or does it mean that I can be married to the opposite sex and still have same sex and will still be in God’s will?
I would further want to be cleared on homosexuality and the will of God in it. Thank you.
I hope I wasn’t provocative cos it almost looks that way?