How could eve sin if there was no sin

Hi this is a question my friend just asked me I’m not sure how I should answer it.
according to the Bible, before the fall, there was no sin in the world (it was pure). How was Eve able to sin if there was no sin in the world? Is it because she still did have free will but she hadn’t used it in a sinful way yet?


@Daniel.S Great question :slight_smile: The word “sin” just means to miss the mark—to fall short. Sin is not the same thing as a sinful nature. Adam and Eve did not yet have a sinful nature, but, as you said, they did have a will. And they used their will to choose to disobey God, which was a sin, or a “falling short”.

You might find this thread interesting.


@SeanO thank you brother you always answer my questions and are constantly contributing to this community and I am honestly so appreciative for all the work you put in. thank you so so very much you are not laboring in vein God bless


@Daniel.S Thanks so much for the encouragement :slight_smile: It’s much appreciated. May Jesus bless you richly and guide you into all truth.

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There are actually 2 words usually describing sins. Trespass which means you choose to do something you knew was against Gods will. That is the word here for what Eve and subsequently Adam did. God told them not to eat from the tree. They choose to. The second word for sin is miss the mark. That is not the word used here. Miss the mark means even when you are trying not to sin you miss the mark. Example would be you are shooting at a target. No matter how skilled a marksman you are you will not hit the bullseye dead center every time. But that is what you are trying to do. The reason Eve and Adam could sin is the same reason Satan could sin. God has given free will to choose.

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