How would you explain why God would command Hosea to marry a prostitute?


(Omar Rushlive Lozada Arellano) #1

Hello guys. Just wondering how you would answer the question in case you were asked:

  1. If God does not want us to be unequally yoked with unbelievers, why would He command Hosea to marry a prostitute?

Hosea 1:2-3, “When the Lord began to speak through Hosea, the Lord said to him, “Go, marry a promiscuous woman and have children with her, for like an adulterous wife this land is guilty of unfaithfulness to the Lord.” So he married Gomer daughter of Diblaim, and she conceived and bore him a son.”


(SeanO) #2

@omnarchy Good question. I think the following article gives a pretty good summary answer.

First, it is unclear whether she was already a prostitute before he married her or if her unfaithfulness occurred only after marriage.

Second, Hosea redeemed her back from her slavery and idolatry to be his wife as an illustration of God’s great love His people, who were prostituting themselves with foreign gods.

I think it is also important to remember that Jesus became sin for us on the cross. God is willing to become messy in order to redeem us. In a way, Hosea was stepping into this woman’s messy life to redeem her, just as Christ would one day step into our messy world to redeem us by becoming a curse for us.


(Omar Rushlive Lozada Arellano) #3

Thank you, @SeanO. I really love how you included the gospel at the end of your comment.