I’ve been trying to explain this Scripture to someone who is being misled by a preacher in thinking that Jesus is actually saying that we become like actual gods. I think I am not doing a really good job. It would be nice to know how would you explain these verses in its original context and how this particular scripture relates to us in 21st century? I will appreciate your response.
@roze4jesus I think a simple line of argument you could use to show that Jesus is not saying we will become gods is this:
- In the Garden of Eden it was satan who lied saying that Adam and Eve could become like God
- Jesus resisted satan in the wilderness and therefore stands opposed to satan’s work and especially this particular lie that we can be like God
- Jesus would not do the work of satan - He came to do the work of God
- Therefore Jesus is not saying that we can become like God
Even if she has an objection, that might provide a place to start.
There appear to be 2 main theories about Psalms 82:6.
- Men are called ‘gods’ because they exercise judgment - God has granted them authority to judge, but they will die just like other men
- Men are called ‘gods’ because they were responsible for pronouncing God’s Word to the people
These two arguments then are applied by Jesus (depending on which view you take) in John 10:34 as follows:
- If you called men ‘gods’ because they judged why do you object to my using that title?
- If you called men ‘gods’ because they declared God’s Word, how much more should I be called God who am the Word incarnate?
Here is a note from the NET Bible:
Hope that is helpful
Hello Rose (@roze4jesus). Here is my attempt to explain the passages:
John 10:34’s setting is at the time of the Feast of Dedication in Jerusalem. It was winter at that time and Jesus was walking in the temple (v.22-23). Before Jesus answered them in v. 34, we can see that Jesus claimed that He is one with the Father (v. 30). This made the Jews pick up stones to stone Him.
In v.33 the Jews clarified that they were stoning Him not for the good works He has done, but because a man like Him is claiming to be God, which is blasphemy for them. As a result, Jesus referred to Psalm 82:6 saying, “Is it not written in your Law, I said, you are gods?” His point is that if human judges can be called gods not because they are literally gods but as God’s representatives, then the one who is truly the Son of God should more rightly be addressed as one.
We can see this point in the verses that will follow:
“If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken —do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?” (v. 35-36)
Another aspect where we see the human rulers being called gods does not mean that they are actual gods, we can read the passage of Psalm 82:6-7 to them:
"I said, “You are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you; nevertheless, like men you shall die, and fall like any prince.”
If the human rulers would become as an actual god, why would they die and fall like any man or prince?
I hope this helps!
These are two tough verses that your friend has enquired about. I would like to offer a different explanation that my two brothers.
The article is by Michael Heiser. Here is a link.
The net of the article is this.
The gods in Psalms 82 are not mortals there are divine created sons of the most high. it would not make sense for Jesus to cite a Psalm that used mortals (Jews or otherwise) to claim his deity.
As an aside I would enquire as to whether or not your friend was being influenced by the LDS church as they use this verse to support their belief that they will become gods.