Hi all! I received a biblical question from a young Christian woman I am mentoring and would appreciate your thoughts and knowledge in responding to her. I do not wish to mislead her with my admittedly limited understanding of this text. Below you will find her question and my response so far.
Ok, so my understanding of v.9, in the context of reading v.1-12 is that if a widow or divorced woman made a vow during her marriage and her husband had agreed with that vow during their marriage, then she would be bound by that vow after her husband either dies or has divorced her. If her husband had spoken out against that vow during their marriage, then she would be released from carrying out that vow as a widow or divorced woman.
This being said, I am no biblical scholar and would be interested in hearing this verse interpreted by someone who is well-versed (no pun intended) in O.T. interpretation because I may well be off base here. I am going to reach out to some of my friends who know the Bible way better than me.